CompTIA SY0-401 ExamCompTIA Security+ Certification

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Q321. A network administrator is configuring access control for the sales department which has high employee turnover. Which of the following is BEST suited when assigning user rights to individuals in the sales department? 

A. Time of day restrictions 

B. Group based privileges 

C. User assigned privileges 

D. Domain admin restrictions 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The question states that the sales department has a high employee turnover. You can assign permissions to access resources either to a user or a group. The most efficient way is to assign permissions to a group (group based privileges). Then when a new employee starts, you simply add the new user account to the appropriate groups. The user then inherits all the permissions assigned to the groups. 


Q322. A database administrator receives a call on an outside telephone line from a person who states that they work for a well-known database vendor. The caller states there have been problems applying the newly released vulnerability patch for their database system, and asks what version is being used so that they can assist. Which of the following is the BEST action for the administrator to take? 

A. Thank the caller, report the contact to the manager, and contact the vendor support line to verify any reported patch issues. 

B. Obtain the vendor’s email and phone number and call them back after identifying the number of systems affected by the patch. 

C. Give the caller the database version and patch level so that they can receive help applying the patch. 

D. Call the police to report the contact about the database systems, and then check system logs for attack attempts. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Impersonation is where a person, computer, software application or service pretends to be someone or something it’s not. Impersonation is commonly non-maliciously used in client/server applications. However, it can also be used as a security threat. 

In this question, the person making the call may be impersonating someone who works for a well-known database vendor. The actions described in this answer would mitigate the risk. By not divulging information about your database system and contacting the vendor directly, you can be sure that you are talking to the right people. 


Q323. The information security team does a presentation on social media and advises the participants not to provide too much personal information on social media web sites. This advice would BEST protect people from which of the following? 

A. Rainbow tables attacks 

B. Brute force attacks 

C. Birthday attacks 

D. Cognitive passwords attacks 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Social Networking Dangers are ‘amplified’ in that social media networks are designed to mass distribute personal messages. If an employee reveals too much personal information it would be easy for miscreants to use the messages containing the personal information to work out possible passwords. 


Q324. Jane, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into a server. Which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on a specific server? 

A. HIPS 

B. NIDS 

C. HIDS 

D. NIPS 

Answer:

Explanation: 

This question is asking which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on a specific server. To stop an intrusion on a specific server, you would use a HIPS (Host Intrusion Prevention System). The difference between a HIPS and other intrusion prevention systems is that a HIPS is a software intrusion prevention systems that is installed on a ‘specific server’. 

Intrusion prevention systems (IPS), also known as intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS), are network security appliances that monitor network and/or system activities for malicious activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it. 

A HIPS (Host Intrusion Prevention System) is software installed on a host which monitors the host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host with the aim of detecting and preventing intrusion. 


Q325. Which of the following is true about asymmetric encryption? 

A. A message encrypted with the private key can be decrypted by the same key 

B. A message encrypted with the public key can be decrypted with a shared key. 

C. A message encrypted with a shared key, can be decrypted by the same key. 

D. A message encrypted with the public key can be decrypted with the private key. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Asymmetric algorithms use two keys to encrypt and decrypt data. These asymmetric keys are referred to as the public key and the private key. The sender uses the public key to encrypt a message, and the receiver uses the private key to decrypt the message; what one key does, the other one undoes. 


Q326. An IT security technician needs to establish host based security for company workstations. Which of the following will BEST meet this requirement? 

A. Implement IIS hardening by restricting service accounts. 

B. Implement database hardening by applying vendor guidelines. 

C. Implement perimeter firewall rules to restrict access. 

D. Implement OS hardening by applying GPOs. 

Answer:

Explanation: Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability. Reducing the surface of vulnerability typically includes removing or disabling unnecessary functions and features, removing or disabling unnecessary user accounts, disabling unnecessary protocols and ports, and disabling unnecessary services. This can be implemented using the native security features of an operating system, such as Group Policy Objects (GPOs). 


Q327. Which of the following security awareness training is BEST suited for data owners who are concerned with protecting the confidentiality of their data? 

A. Social networking use training 

B. Personally owned device policy training 

C. Tailgating awareness policy training 

D. Information classification training 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Information classification is done by confidentiality and comprises of three categories, namely: public use, internal use and restricted use. Knowing these categories and how to handle data according to its category is essential in protecting the confidentiality of the data. 


Q328. Which of the following components of an all-in-one security appliance would MOST likely be configured in order to restrict access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites? 

A. Spam filter 

B. URL filter 

C. Content inspection 

D. Malware inspection 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The question asks how to prevent access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites. You access a website by browsing to a URL using a Web browser or peer-to-peer file sharing client software. A URL filter is used to block URLs (websites) to prevent users accessing the website. 

Incorrect Answer: 

A: A spam filter is used for email. All inbound (and sometimes outbound) email is passed through the spam filter to detect spam emails. The spam emails are then discarded or tagged as potential spam according to the spam filter configuration. Spam filters do not prevent users accessing peer-to-peer file sharing websites. 

C: Content inspection is the process of inspecting the content of a web page as it is downloaded. The content can then be blocked if it doesn’t comply with the company’s web policy. Content-control software determines what content will be available or perhaps more often what content will be blocked. Content inspection does not prevent users accessing peer-to-peer file sharing websites (although it could block the content of the sites as it is downloaded). 

D: Malware inspection is the process of scanning a computer system for malware. Malware inspection does not prevent users accessing peer-to-peer file sharing websites. 

References: http://www.provision.ro/threat-management/web-application-security/url-filtering#pagei-1|pagep-1| Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 18, 19. 


Q329. A computer supply company is located in a building with three wireless networks. The system security team implemented a quarterly security scan and saw the following. 

SSIDStateChannelLevel 

Computer AreUs1connected170dbm 

Computer AreUs2connected580dbm 

Computer AreUs3connected375dbm 

Computer AreUs4connected695dbm 

Which of the following is this an example of? 

A. Rogue access point 

B. Near field communication 

C. Jamming 

D. Packet sniffing 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The question states that the building has three wireless networks. However, the scan is showing four wireless networks with the SSIDs: Computer AreUs1 , Computer AreUs2 , Computer AreUs3 and Computer AreUs4. Therefore, one of these wireless networks probably shouldn’t be there. This is an example of a rogue access point. A rogue access point is a wireless access point that has either been installed on a secure company network without explicit authorization from a local network administrator, or has been created to allow a hacker to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack. Rogue access points of the first kind can pose a security threat to large organizations with many employees, because anyone with access to the premises can install (maliciously or non-maliciously) an inexpensive wireless router that can potentially allow access to a secure network to unauthorized parties. Rogue access points of the second kind target networks that do not employ mutual authentication (client-server server-client) and may be used in conjunction with a rogue RADIUS server, depending on security configuration of the target network. To prevent the installation of rogue access points, organizations can install wireless intrusion prevention systems to monitor the radio spectrum for unauthorized access points. 


Q330. An insurance company requires an account recovery process so that information created by an employee can be accessed after that employee is no longer with the firm. Which of the following is the BEST approach to implement this process? 

A. Employee is required to share their password with authorized staff prior to leaving the firm 

B. Passwords are stored in a reversible form so that they can be recovered when needed 

C. Authorized employees have the ability to reset passwords so that the data is accessible 

D. All employee data is exported and imported by the employee prior to them leaving the firm 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Since a user’s password isn’t stored on most operating systems (only a hash value is kept), most operating systems allow the administrator (or authorized person in this case) to change the value then the information/files/documents can be accessed. This is the safest way of recovery by an authorized person and is not dependent on those who leave the firm. 


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